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Chapter 1: Exploring the Investigative World of Science

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
Write any one question that you are curious about regarding the natural world around you. How would you go about investigating it scientifically?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Question of Curiosity: Why does food cook faster in a pressure cooker than in an open vessel?

Scientific Investigation Steps:

  • 1. Observation: Notice that the same amount of food takes less time in a pressure cooker.
  • 2. Hypothesis: Increased pressure inside the cooker raises the boiling point of water above 100°C.
  • 3. Experiment: Cook equal amounts of rice in open and pressure cooker vessels, measuring time.
  • 4. Conclusion: Higher temperature due to increased pressure speeds up cooking.
CBSE Marking Scheme
A valid curiosity question from nature1 Mark
Forming a hypothesis related to the question1 Mark
Designing an investigation/experiment to test it1 Mark
Q2
What is the difference between an observation and an inference? Give one example of each from daily life.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~50 words)

Observation is a direct, factual record of what is seen, heard, or measured using our senses or instruments, without interpretation. Example: The sky looks dark and cloudy.

Inference is a logical conclusion or explanation drawn from observations. Example: It is going to rain soon (inferred from the dark clouds).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition and example of observation1 Mark
Definition and example of inference1 Mark
Q3
List the steps of the scientific method in the correct order and briefly explain each step.
5 Marks (80–120 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~110 words)

Steps of the Scientific Method:

  • 1. Observation: Carefully observe a natural phenomenon or problem using senses or instruments and record it accurately.
  • 2. Question: Frame a specific, testable question based on the observation (e.g., "Why does this happen?").
  • 3. Hypothesis: Propose a logical, testable explanation or prediction as a possible answer to the question.
  • 4. Experiment: Design and perform a controlled experiment, changing only one variable (independent variable) while keeping others constant.
  • 5. Data Collection & Analysis: Record measurements and observations systematically; look for patterns in data.
  • 6. Conclusion: Accept or reject the hypothesis based on evidence from the experiment.
  • 7. Communication: Share findings with others so they can verify and build upon the results.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Steps 1–2 (Observation and Question)1 Mark
Step 3 (Hypothesis)1 Mark
Step 4 (Controlled Experiment)1 Mark
Step 5 (Data Analysis)1 Mark
Steps 6–7 (Conclusion and Communication)1 Mark
Q4
What is a hypothesis? Why must a hypothesis be testable? Give one example.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

Definition: A hypothesis is a proposed, logical, and tentative explanation or prediction made to answer a scientific question, based on prior knowledge and observations.

Why Testable: A hypothesis must be testable so that it can be confirmed or disproved through controlled experiments and observation. A hypothesis that cannot be tested remains mere speculation, not science.

Example: "Plants grow taller when watered daily compared to plants watered once a week." — This can be tested by growing identical plants under controlled conditions with different watering frequencies.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of hypothesis1 Mark
Reason why it must be testable1 Mark
Correct example of a testable hypothesis1 Mark
Q5
Differentiate between qualitative and quantitative observations. Give two examples of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Qualitative Observations describe characteristics using words (colour, smell, texture, shape) without numbers. Examples: The flower is red; the substance has a pungent smell.

Quantitative Observations involve measurable data expressed in numbers with units. Examples: The plant is 25 cm tall; the temperature is 37°C.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Qualitative observation definition + 2 examples1 Mark
Quantitative observation definition + 2 examples1 Mark
Q6
Identify the independent, dependent, and controlled variables in an experiment testing how the temperature of water affects the rate at which sugar dissolves.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Variables Identified:

  • Independent Variable: Temperature of the water (the factor deliberately changed, e.g., 20°C, 40°C, 60°C).
  • Dependent Variable: Time taken for a fixed amount of sugar to dissolve completely (the factor measured).
  • Controlled Variables: Amount of water (volume), mass and crystal size of sugar, rate of stirring, and type of container (kept constant for fair testing).
CBSE Marking Scheme
Independent variable (temperature)1 Mark
Dependent variable (time to dissolve)1 Mark
Controlled variables (volume, sugar mass, stirring)1 Mark
Q7
What are standard laboratory safety rules every student must follow while heating chemicals or handling glassware in a science laboratory?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Laboratory Safety Rules:

  • 1. Always wear protective eye goggles, lab aprons, and closed-toe footwear.
  • 2. Never point the open mouth of a test tube containing boiling liquid towards yourself or others.
  • 3. Use test tube holders and heat-resistant gloves when handling hot apparatus.
  • 4. Report any glass breakage or chemical spills immediately to the teacher without touching shards.
  • 5. Never taste, inhale directly, or touch any laboratory chemical with bare hands.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Protective gear rules1 Mark
Heating safety precautions1 Mark
Handling chemicals and breakages1 Mark
Q8
Why are repeated trials necessary in a scientific experiment before arriving at a reliable conclusion?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Repeated trials are essential because:

  • 1. They minimize experimental errors and anomalies caused by accidental fluctuations.
  • 2. They allow calculation of an average value, confirming that results are repeatable, consistent, and scientifically valid.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Error minimization and anomaly identification1 Mark
Repeatability and reliability of data1 Mark
Q9
Explain how a scientific theory differs from a popular everyday guess or opinion.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

In everyday language, a "theory" means a guess or opinion without evidence. In contrast, a scientific theory is a well-substantiated, rigorously tested explanation of natural phenomena based on extensive empirical evidence, repeated experimentation, and peer-reviewed observations.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Everyday meaning: untested opinion/guess1 Mark
Scientific meaning: evidence-backed, tested explanation1 Mark
Q10
What is peer review in science? Why is it considered the cornerstone of scientific credibility and progress?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Peer Review in Science:

Peer review is the formal evaluation process in which independent expert scientists critically examine an experiment, methodology, data, and conclusions before it is published in a recognized scientific journal.

Why It Is Crucial:

  • 1. It detects design flaws, mathematical errors, or biased interpretations.
  • 2. It ensures that the experiment can be independently replicated by other laboratories.
  • 3. It prevents fraudulent or unsubstantiated claims from entering scientific literature, maintaining public trust and scientific integrity.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of peer review by independent experts1 Mark
Error detection and replicability verification1 Mark
Scientific integrity and prevention of bias1 Mark
Q11
Distinguish between qualitative data and quantitative data with suitable examples from a plant growth experiment.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Qualitative Data: Descriptive observations recorded using words and senses (e.g., "the plant leaves turned dark green and healthy").

Quantitative Data: Numerical measurements recorded using standard units and instruments (e.g., "the shoot height increased by 4.5 cm in 7 days").

CBSE Marking Scheme
Qualitative definition and plant example1 Mark
Quantitative definition and numerical plant example1 Mark
Q12
Why must a scientific hypothesis always be "falsifiable"? Give an example of a falsifiable hypothesis versus a non-falsifiable statement.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Falsifiability in Science: A hypothesis is scientifically useful only if it can be tested and proven false by empirical evidence or observation.

  • Falsifiable Hypothesis: "Increasing soil nitrogen accelerates pea plant stem elongation." (Can be tested and refuted if nitrogen has no effect).
  • Non-Falsifiable Statement: "Invisible, undetectable spirits cause raindrops to fall." (Cannot be tested or disproved by any physical instrument).
CBSE Marking Scheme
Concept of falsifiability explained1 Mark
Testable/falsifiable scientific example1 Mark
Non-falsifiable supernatural example contrast1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 1CBSE Pattern
📝 Case Study Based
Q1. Priya noticed that the bread she left uncovered on the kitchen counter turned mouldy after two days. She wanted to investigate whether moisture affects the rate of mould growth. She set up two identical slices of bread — one kept dry in an open box, and one kept in a closed container with a wet cotton ball. After 3 days, the moist slice showed heavy mould growth while the dry slice showed none.

Based on the above passage: (a) What was Priya's hypothesis? (b) What was the independent variable in her experiment? (c) What conclusion can be drawn from the results?
(a) Hypothesis: Mould grows faster on bread kept in moist conditions compared to dry conditions.
(b) Independent Variable: The level of moisture (presence or absence of moisture).
(c) Conclusion: Moisture promotes the growth of mould on bread. The dependent variable (mould growth) was directly affected by the independent variable (moisture).
⚖️ Assertion–Reason
Q2. Assertion (A): In a scientific experiment, only one variable should be changed at a time.
Reason (R): Changing multiple variables simultaneously makes it impossible to determine which variable caused the observed effect.

Options: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.  (D) A is false but R is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
Both statements are true, and R correctly explains A. In a controlled experiment, only the independent variable is changed; all other variables (controlled variables) are kept constant so that cause-and-effect relationships can be accurately identified.
🧠 HOTS (Higher Order Thinking)
Q3. A scientist performs an experiment and gets results that do NOT support her hypothesis. Should she consider the experiment a failure? Justify your answer with scientific reasoning.
Answer: No, the experiment is not a failure. In science, a rejected hypothesis is equally valuable — it eliminates one possible explanation and narrows the search for the correct answer. The scientist should review her experimental design, check for errors, reformulate the hypothesis, and repeat the investigation. Many important discoveries (e.g., discovery of penicillin) arose from unexpected results. Negative results are a valid part of the scientific process.
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Chapter 2: The Invisible Living World: Beyond Our Naked Eye

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
Name the five major groups of microorganisms and give one example of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

The five major groups of microorganisms are:

  1. Bacteria — e.g., Lactobacillus (curd-forming bacterium)
  2. Fungi — e.g., Penicillium (antibiotic-producing mould)
  3. Protozoa — e.g., Plasmodium (causes malaria)
  4. Algae — e.g., Spirogyra (green filamentous alga)
  5. Viruses — e.g., Influenza virus (causes flu)
CBSE Marking Scheme
Naming all 5 groups correctly1 Mark
Correct example for each group1 Mark
Q2
Distinguish between a plant cell and a bacterial cell with respect to: (a) presence of nucleus (b) cell wall material (c) size.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~65 words)

(a) Nucleus: Plant cells have a well-defined true nucleus enclosed by a nuclear membrane (eukaryotic). Bacterial cells lack a true nucleus — their genetic material (DNA) is found in an undefined region called the nucleoid (prokaryotic).

(b) Cell Wall: Plant cell walls are made of cellulose. Bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan (murein).

(c) Size: Plant cells are much larger (10–100 µm). Bacteria are extremely small (0.1–10 µm).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Nucleus difference (true nucleus vs. nucleoid)1 Mark
Cell wall material (cellulose vs. peptidoglycan)1 Mark
Size difference with approximate values1 Mark
Q3
In Aanandi's experiment, she placed yeast and sugar solution in a test tube and attached a balloon over its mouth. (a) What happened to the balloon after some time? (b) Why did this happen? (c) What happens if the gas produced is passed through lime water?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

(a) The balloon gradually inflated (swelled up) after some time.

(b) Yeast is a fungus that carries out fermentation — it breaks down sugar (glucose) into alcohol and carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas under anaerobic conditions. The CO₂ gas produced gets trapped in the balloon and inflates it.

(c) When the CO₂ gas is bubbled through lime water [Ca(OH)₂], it reacts with it to form calcium carbonate (CaCO₃), turning the lime water milky white. This confirms the presence of CO₂.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Balloon inflated (correct observation)1 Mark
Fermentation by yeast producing CO₂1 Mark
Lime water turns milky due to CO₂1 Mark
Q4
List any four beneficial roles of microorganisms in our daily lives.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Four beneficial roles of microorganisms:

  1. Lactobacillus bacteria convert milk into curd through fermentation.
  2. Yeast is used in baking (bread, cakes) by producing CO₂ that makes the dough rise.
  3. Rhizobium bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen in soil, enriching its fertility.
  4. Penicillium fungi produce life-saving antibiotics like Penicillin.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Any 2 correct roles with microorganism names1 Mark
Any 2 more correct roles with names1 Mark
Q5
Why are viruses not classified as living organisms, yet they can cause diseases in living beings? Explain.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

Why Viruses are not fully living: Viruses are considered on the borderline of living and non-living. They have no cells, no cytoplasm, no metabolism, and cannot carry out life processes (nutrition, respiration, excretion) on their own. Outside a host, they are inert particles.

Yet they cause diseases because: When viruses enter a living cell, they hijack the host cell's machinery (ribosomes, enzymes) to replicate themselves, producing thousands of copies that destroy host cells, causing symptoms of disease (e.g., COVID-19, Influenza, Chickenpox).

CBSE Marking Scheme
No cells, no metabolism — acellular nature of viruses1 Mark
Hijacking host cell machinery for replication1 Mark
Examples of viral diseases (any two)1 Mark
Q6
Explain the process of fermentation with the help of an example. Name the scientist who discovered fermentation.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Fermentation: It is the anaerobic biochemical process in which microorganisms like yeast convert sugars into alcohol and carbon dioxide.

Example: In baking, yeast is added to dough. It respires anaerobically, producing CO₂ gas that creates bubbles, making the dough rise and become soft and spongy. In breweries, yeast ferments barley sugar into ethanol.

Discovery: Fermentation was discovered by Louis Pasteur in 1857.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of fermentation1 Mark
Example in baking or brewing with CO₂/alcohol1 Mark
Scientist: Louis Pasteur (1857)1 Mark
Q7
What are antibiotics? What precautions must be taken while taking antibiotics?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Antibiotics are chemical medicines produced from bacteria or fungi that kill or stop the growth of disease-causing bacteria (e.g., Penicillin, Streptomycin).

Precautions:

  • 1. Antibiotics must be taken only on the advice of a qualified doctor.
  • 2. The full prescribed course must be completed, even if symptoms vanish early, to prevent antibiotic resistance.
  • 3. Antibiotics should not be taken for viral infections like cold or flu, as they are ineffective against viruses.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition and example of antibiotics1 Mark
Precaution: Complete prescribed course1 Mark
Precaution: Ineffective against viral infections1 Mark
Q8
Describe four common methods of food preservation used at home to prevent microbial spoilage.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Methods of Food Preservation:

  • 1. Chemical / Salt Preservation: Common salt draws water out of microbial cells by osmosis (salting of pickles, fish, and meat).
  • 2. Preservation by Sugar: Jams and jellies use high sugar concentration to inhibit bacterial growth by dehydration.
  • 3. Use of Oil and Vinegar: Bacteria cannot survive in an acidic environment created by vinegar and oil in pickles.
  • 4. Heat and Cold Treatments: Boiling kills microbes; low temperature in refrigerators inhibits microbial multiplication and enzymatic activity.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Salting and sugar methods1.5 Marks
Oil/vinegar and temperature treatments1.5 Marks
Q9
Describe how an Amoeba moves and ingests its food using pseudopodia. What type of digestion does it possess?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Amoeba is a microscopic single-celled protozoan. It moves by extending finger-like projections of its cytoplasm called pseudopodia ("false feet").

When it senses food, pseudopodia engulf the food particle by encircling it, forming a food vacuole. Digestive enzymes break down the food inside the vacuole. This process is called phagocytosis and the digestion is intracellular.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Role of pseudopodia in movement and engulfing1.5 Marks
Formation of food vacuole and intracellular digestion1.5 Marks
Q10
What are antibiotics? What precautions must be taken while taking antibiotics, and why must they not be taken for viral infections like flu?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Antibiotics: Medicines manufactured from microorganisms (fungi and bacteria) that kill or stop the growth of disease-causing bacteria (e.g., Penicillin, Streptomycin).

Precautions:

  • 1. Take only when prescribed by a qualified doctor and complete the full course even if feeling better, to avoid antibiotic resistance.
  • 2. Do not take when not needed, as it kills beneficial gut bacteria.
  • 3. Antibiotics are completely ineffective against viruses (like common cold or flu) because viruses lack bacterial cell walls and metabolic machinery.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of antibiotics and microbial origin1 Mark
Course completion and resistance precaution1 Mark
Ineffectiveness against viral infections explained1 Mark
Q11
Explain how Rhizobium bacteria contribute to the natural fertility of agricultural soil.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Rhizobium bacteria live symbiotically in the root nodules of leguminous plants (beans, peas, gram). They fix atmospheric nitrogen gas into water-soluble nitrates that plants can absorb through roots to synthesize proteins, enriching the soil naturally without chemical fertilizers.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Symbiotic presence in leguminous root nodules1 Mark
Atmospheric nitrogen fixation into nitrates1 Mark
Q12
Describe the method of pasteurization of milk. How does it prevent milk spoilage without altering its nutritional value?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Pasteurization Process:

  1. Milk is heated to about 70°C for 15 to 30 seconds.
  2. It is then suddenly chilled to below 10°C and stored in sterile bottles or packets.

Mechanism: The rapid heat shock kills heat-sensitive pathogenic bacteria, while sudden chilling prevents remaining spore germination, preserving freshness and nutritional taste.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Temperature (70°C) and time (15-30 seconds)1 Mark
Sudden chilling mechanism explained1 Mark
Destruction of pathogens preserving quality1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 2CBSE Pattern
📝 Case Study Based
Q1. Ravi observed that curd forms faster on hot summer days than in winter. His teacher told him that the bacteria responsible for forming curd are sensitive to temperature. Ravi set up an investigation: he placed milk with a spoonful of curd in containers at 10°C, 25°C, and 45°C and observed after 6 hours.

(a) Name the bacterium responsible for curd formation. (b) At which temperature would curd form best, and why? (c) What does this experiment show about the nature of microorganisms?
(a) Lactobacillus bacteria are responsible for curd formation.
(b) Curd would form best at 25°C–37°C (warm temperature), as Lactobacillus grows optimally at warm temperatures, fermenting milk lactose into lactic acid, which coagulates the milk protein (casein).
(c) The experiment shows that microorganism activity is highly sensitive to environmental conditions, especially temperature — too cold slows their metabolism; too hot kills them.
⚖️ Assertion–Reason
Q2. Assertion (A): Antibiotics are effective against bacterial infections but not against viral infections.
Reason (R): Antibiotics work by targeting structures specific to bacterial cells (like peptidoglycan cell walls), which viruses do not possess.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.  (D) A is false but R is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
Both A and R are true. Antibiotics interfere with bacterial-specific structures and processes (cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis in bacterial ribosomes). Since viruses are acellular and use host machinery, antibiotics have no target to act on in viruses, making them completely ineffective against viral diseases.
🧠 HOTS
Q3. Doctors warn against excessive or unnecessary use of antibiotics. Why? What is "antibiotic resistance" and why is it a global health threat?
Answer: When antibiotics are overused, bacteria that have natural mutations making them resistant survive and multiply, passing on resistance genes. This produces "superbugs" that cannot be killed by standard antibiotics. Antibiotic resistance is a global health threat because infections that were once easily treatable (like TB, pneumonia) may become fatal if resistance spreads widely, and developing new antibiotics is a slow, expensive process.
3

Chapter 3: Health: The Ultimate Treasure

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
What is the difference between communicable and non-communicable diseases? Give two examples of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Communicable diseases are caused by pathogens (bacteria, viruses) and can spread from one person to another through air, water, contact, or vectors. Examples: Tuberculosis, Cholera.

Non-communicable diseases are caused by genetic factors, lifestyle, or environmental reasons and do not spread from person to person. Examples: Diabetes, Heart disease.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Communicable diseases definition + 2 examples1 Mark
Non-communicable diseases definition + 2 examples1 Mark
Q2
How does vaccination help protect us from diseases? Explain with the concept of immunity.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

Vaccination involves introducing a weakened or killed pathogen (or its proteins) into the body through injection or oral doses. This stimulates the body's immune system to produce specific antibodies without causing the actual disease.

These antibodies remain in memory cells. When the same pathogen attacks in the future, the immune system recognises it rapidly and destroys it before it can cause illness. This protection is called acquired immunity. Examples: Polio vaccine, BCG (TB), COVID-19 vaccine.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Introduction of weakened/killed pathogen via vaccine1 Mark
Immune system produces antibodies — memory cells1 Mark
Rapid recognition & destruction on future exposure1 Mark
Q3
Explain why completing a full course of antibiotics is important, even if you feel better before finishing.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

When we stop antibiotics early, the weaker bacteria are killed first, but some stronger, resistant bacteria survive. These remaining bacteria multiply and cause the infection to return — now with a strain that is resistant to the antibiotic. Completing the full course ensures all bacteria, including resistant ones, are eliminated.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Stronger/resistant bacteria survive if course is stopped early1 Mark
Full course eliminates all bacteria, preventing resistance1 Mark
Q4
List five personal hygiene practices that help prevent the spread of communicable diseases.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~40 words)

Five hygiene practices to prevent communicable diseases:

  1. Washing hands with soap before meals and after using the toilet.
  2. Drinking clean, boiled, or purified water.
  3. Covering mouth and nose while coughing or sneezing.
  4. Eating freshly cooked, covered food to prevent contamination.
  5. Getting vaccinated as per the immunisation schedule.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Any 2–3 correct practices clearly stated1 Mark
Any 2 more correct practices1 Mark
Q5
What are vectors in disease transmission? Name two common vectors and the specific diseases they spread.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Vectors are living carrier organisms (usually insects) that transmit infectious pathogens from an infected person or reservoir to a healthy individual without catching the disease themselves.

Examples:

  • 1. Female Anopheles mosquito: Transmits Plasmodium (causes Malaria).
  • 2. Female Aedes mosquito: Transmits Dengue virus and Chikungunya virus.
  • 3. Housefly (Musca domestica): Carries cholera and typhoid pathogens on its body.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of vector1 Mark
Female Anopheles -> Malaria1 Mark
Female Aedes -> Dengue / Housefly -> Cholera1 Mark
Q6
Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity with suitable examples.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Active Immunity: Produced when the body's own immune system generates antibodies after exposure to a pathogen or vaccine antigen. It takes time to develop but is long-lasting (e.g., immunity after Measles or Polio vaccination).

Passive Immunity: Acquired when ready-made antibodies are directly introduced from an outside source. It provides immediate protection but is short-lived (e.g., antibodies in mother's colostrum breast milk or anti-tetanus serum injection).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Active immunity features and example1.5 Marks
Passive immunity features and example1.5 Marks
Q7
Why is ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) administered during severe diarrhea? How can it be prepared at home in an emergency?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Severe diarrhea causes dangerous loss of water and essential electrolytes (salts). ORS restores the body's fluid and electrolyte balance, preventing fatal dehydration.

Emergency Home Preparation: Dissolve 6 level teaspoons of sugar and 1/2 level teaspoon of salt in 1 litre of clean boiled and cooled drinking water.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Reason: rehydration and electrolyte replenishment1 Mark
Home formula: 6 tsp sugar + 0.5 tsp salt in 1 L water1 Mark
Q8
Explain the importance of a balanced diet, clean drinking water, and regular physical exercise in maintaining overall health.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Key Pillars of Health:

  • 1. Balanced Diet: Supplies all essential nutrients (carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, water, and roughage) in proper proportions for tissue repair, growth, and immune defense.
  • 2. Clean Drinking Water: Prevents water-borne infections (cholera, typhoid, jaundice) and maintains cellular metabolism and waste elimination.
  • 3. Physical Exercise: Strengthens cardiovascular health, enhances muscular endurance, reduces obesity, and boosts mental well-being.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Significance of balanced diet1 Mark
Significance of clean potable water1 Mark
Significance of physical activity1 Mark
Q9
How does vaccination protect the human body from infectious diseases? Explain the role of memory cells.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Mechanism of Vaccination:

A vaccine introduces dead or weakened (attenuated) microbes into a healthy body. The body's immune system responds by producing specific proteins called antibodies to fight and eliminate them.

Role of Memory Cells: Specialized immune memory cells remember the pathogen. If the real disease-causing microbe enters the body later, the immune system rapidly releases massive amounts of antibodies to destroy it before it causes illness.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Introduction of dead/weakened antigen explained1 Mark
Antibody production by immune system1 Mark
Immune memory cells and long-term protection1 Mark
Q10
Distinguish between communicable and non-communicable diseases with two examples of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Communicable Diseases: Infectious illnesses that spread from an infected person to a healthy person through air, water, food, or vectors (e.g., Tuberculosis, Cholera, Malaria).

Non-Communicable Diseases: Non-infectious conditions caused by genetics, lifestyle, or nutritional deficiencies that cannot spread between individuals (e.g., Diabetes, Hypertension, Scurvy).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Communicable definition and examples1 Mark
Non-communicable definition and examples1 Mark
Q11
What measures should be taken in a residential colony to prevent the outbreak of vector-borne diseases like Dengue and Malaria?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Vector Control Measures:

  • 1. Eliminate Stagnant Water: Frequently empty and dry water coolers, flowerpots, overhead open tanks, and discarded tyres to break mosquito breeding cycles.
  • 2. Biological Control: Introduce Gambusia fish in local ponds to feed on mosquito larvae.
  • 3. Personal Protection: Use mosquito nets, window mesh screens, and apply repellents during dusk and dawn.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Elimination of standing water breeding sites1 Mark
Biological larva control (Gambusia fish)1 Mark
Mesh screens and personal protection1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 3CBSE Pattern
📝 Case Study Based
Q1. During a school camp, 12 students fell ill with fever, vomiting, and diarrhoea after drinking water from a stream. The school doctor tested the water and found it contaminated with Vibrio cholerae. Students who drank purified bottled water did not fall ill.

(a) Name the disease caused by Vibrio cholerae. (b) What is the mode of transmission of this disease? (c) Suggest two preventive measures.
(a) Vibrio cholerae causes Cholera.
(b) Cholera spreads through contaminated water and food (waterborne/food-borne disease). Consuming water or food contaminated with the bacterium's faeces causes infection.
(c) Preventive measures: (i) Always drink boiled or filtered purified water. (ii) Maintain proper sanitation and sewage disposal to prevent water contamination.
⚖️ Assertion–Reason
Q2. Assertion (A): Using mosquito nets and repellents helps prevent malaria.
Reason (R): Malaria is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.  (D) A is false but R is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
Both statements are true and R correctly explains A. Since malaria is transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito carrying the protozoan Plasmodium, using nets and repellents prevents mosquito bites and therefore blocks the transmission of the parasite.
🧠 HOTS
Q3. "Health is more than the absence of disease." Do you agree? What components make up complete health?
Answer: Yes, I agree. According to the WHO (World Health Organization), health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. Components include: (1) Physical health — proper nutrition, exercise, sleep; (2) Mental health — freedom from stress, anxiety, and depression; (3) Social health — positive relationships, community belonging; (4) Emotional and spiritual well-being. A person can be free of disease but still be unhealthy due to chronic stress or social isolation.
4

Chapter 4: Electricity: Magnetic and Heating Effects

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
What is the heating effect of electric current? Name three household appliances that work on this principle.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~40 words)

Heating Effect: When electric current flows through a conductor (wire), the moving electrons collide with atoms in the conductor, producing heat energy. This is the heating effect of electric current (Joule's heating effect).

Appliances: Electric iron, electric kettle, electric toaster (also: room heater, electric bulb filament).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of heating effect of current1 Mark
Three correct household appliances1 Mark
Q2
Explain how an electromagnet is different from a permanent magnet. Give one practical application of an electromagnet.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Permanent Magnet: A permanent magnet has a constant, fixed magnetic field that cannot be switched on or off. It is made of magnetised steel or alloys (e.g., bar magnet, horseshoe magnet).

Electromagnet: An electromagnet is made by winding an insulated copper coil around an iron core and passing electric current through it. Its magnetic property exists only when current flows — the magnetism can be turned on/off by switching the current. Its strength can also be varied.

Application: Electric bells — the electromagnet attracts an iron strip to ring the bell; used in cranes at scrap yards to lift heavy metal objects; MRI machines in hospitals.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Permanent magnet — fixed, always-on magnetic field1 Mark
Electromagnet — coil + iron core + current; switchable1 Mark
Practical application with explanation1 Mark
Q3
What is the role of a fuse in an electric circuit? What happens if a fuse with a higher rating than required is used?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

Role of Fuse: A fuse is a short piece of thin wire (made of a low melting-point alloy like tin-lead) connected in series in an electric circuit. It acts as a safety device. When excess current (due to short circuit or overload) passes through the circuit, the fuse wire heats up rapidly and melts, breaking the circuit and preventing damage to appliances and fire hazards.

Effect of Higher Rating Fuse: If a fuse with a higher rating than required is used, it will not melt even when dangerous excess current flows. This defeats the purpose of the fuse, allowing the excess current to damage appliances, melt wires, and potentially cause short circuits or electrical fires.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Fuse definition — low melting point wire, series connection1 Mark
Melts on excess current — breaks circuit, safety device1 Mark
Higher rating fuse — won't melt, risk of fire and damage1 Mark
Q4
State Oersted's discovery. What does it tell us about the relationship between electricity and magnetism?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Oersted's Discovery (1820): Hans Christian Oersted discovered that when electric current flows through a wire, it creates a magnetic field around the wire. He observed that a compass needle placed near a current-carrying wire deflected from its normal North-South direction.

Relationship: Oersted's discovery established that electricity and magnetism are interrelated — moving electric charges (current) produce a magnetic effect, forming the basis of electromagnetism.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Current-carrying wire creates magnetic field — Oersted's finding1 Mark
Electricity and magnetism are interrelated (electromagnetism)1 Mark
Q5
Describe the construction and working of an electric bell with the help of magnetic effect of electric current.
4 Marks (70–100 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Construction: An electric bell consists of an electromagnet (U-shaped soft iron core wound with insulated copper wire), a soft iron armature attached to a spring, a contact screw, a hammer, and a metallic gong.

Working: When the switch is pressed, current flows through the electromagnet coil, magnetizing it. The electromagnet attracts the soft iron armature, causing the hammer to strike the gong and produce sound. As the armature moves forward, it breaks contact with the screw. The circuit opens, current stops, the electromagnet loses its magnetism, and the spring pulls the armature back to touch the screw again. This cyclic process repeats rapidly, producing continuous ringing.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Components listed (electromagnet, armature, contact screw, hammer, gong)1.5 Marks
Step-by-step working principle based on electromagnetism2.5 Marks
Q6
Why are Miniature Circuit Breakers (MCBs) increasingly preferred over traditional fuse wires in domestic electrical wiring?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

MCBs are preferred because:

  • 1. They automatically trip and switch off the circuit within milliseconds during an overload or short circuit, offering superior safety.
  • 2. Unlike fuses that melt and must be physically replaced, an MCB can be simply reset by flicking the switch back up.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Automatic tripping safety mechanism1 Mark
Reset capability without wire replacement1 Mark
Q7
Name the alloy commonly used to make the heating elements of electric geysers, toasters, and irons. Why is this alloy chosen?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

The alloy used is Nichrome (an alloy of nickel and chromium).

Reasons for Selection:

  • 1. Nichrome has high electrical resistivity, producing large amounts of heat (H = I²Rt).
  • 2. It has a very high melting point and does not easily oxidize (burn) even at red-hot temperatures.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Naming Nichrome1 Mark
Two properties: high resistivity and high melting point / non-oxidizing1 Mark
Q8
State three ways to increase the magnetic strength of an electromagnet.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

The magnetic strength can be increased by:

  • 1. Increasing the number of turns of wire in the coil.
  • 2. Increasing the electric current flowing through the coil (e.g., using more cells).
  • 3. Using a soft iron core with high magnetic permeability inside the coil.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Increasing number of coil turns0.75 Mark
Increasing electric current0.75 Mark
Using soft iron core0.5 Mark
Q9
What happens when an electric current is passed through acidified water? Name the gases liberated at the cathode and anode.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

When electric current passes through acidified water, it undergoes electrolysis (chemical decomposition into hydrogen and oxygen).

  • At Cathode (negative electrode): Hydrogen gas (H₂) is liberated (ratio 2 volumes).
  • At Anode (positive electrode): Oxygen gas (O₂) is liberated (ratio 1 volume).
CBSE Marking Scheme
Naming process: electrolysis of water1 Mark
Identifying Hydrogen at cathode and Oxygen at anode1 Mark
Q10
Describe the construction and working of an electric bell with the help of an electromagnet.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Working of an Electric Bell:

  1. When the switch is pressed, current flows through the coils of an electromagnet, producing a magnetic field.
  2. The electromagnet attracts the soft iron armature, causing the attached hammer to strike the metallic gong, producing a ringing sound.
  3. As the armature moves forward, it breaks contact with the adjustment screw, breaking the electrical circuit.
  4. The electromagnet loses magnetism, a spring pulls the armature back to touch the screw, re-establishing current and repeating the cycle rapidly.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Electromagnet attraction of armature1 Mark
Hammer striking gong mechanism1 Mark
Circuit break and reset cycle explained1 Mark
Q11
Why is an electric fuse wire made of a material having a low melting point? Name modern replacements for fuses.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

An electric fuse wire has a low melting point (such as a tin-lead alloy) so that whenever excessive current flows due to short-circuiting or overloading, the wire melts quickly due to Joule heating, breaking the circuit and preventing appliance fire.

Modern Replacement: Miniature Circuit Breakers (MCBs), which trip automatically and can be reset without replacement.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Low melting point and circuit break on overload1 Mark
MCB named as modern reusable replacement1 Mark
Q12
What factors determine the strength of an electromagnet? How can you increase its magnetic lifting power?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Factors Determining Electromagnet Strength:

  • 1. Number of Turns: Increasing the number of turns in the insulated copper wire coil increases magnetic field intensity.
  • 2. Electric Current: Supplying a higher electric current through the coil strengthens magnetism.
  • 3. Core Material: Using a soft iron rod instead of steel provides high magnetic permeability and rapid demagnetization when current is switched off.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Number of coil turns factor1 Mark
Magnitude of electric current factor1 Mark
Soft iron core material factor1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 4CBSE Pattern
📝 Case Study Based
Q1. Meera was making an electromagnet using a nail, copper wire, and a battery. She noticed that when she increased the number of coils of wire around the nail, the electromagnet could lift more paper clips than before.

(a) What does increasing the number of coils do to the strength of the electromagnet? (b) Name two other ways to increase the strength of an electromagnet. (c) Why is iron used as the core instead of copper?
(a) Increasing the number of coils (turns) increases the strength of the electromagnet — more coils produce a stronger magnetic field.
(b) (i) Increasing the electric current through the coil. (ii) Using a soft iron core instead of a non-magnetic material.
(c) Iron is used because it is a soft magnetic material — it is easily magnetised when current flows and easily loses its magnetism when current stops, making the electromagnet switchable. Copper is non-magnetic.
⚖️ Assertion–Reason
Q2. Assertion (A): Nichrome wire is used as the heating element in electric appliances like toasters and room heaters.
Reason (R): Nichrome has a high electrical resistance and a high melting point, making it suitable for generating and withstanding high heat.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.  (B) Both true but R is not correct explanation.  (C) A true, R false.  (D) A false, R true.
Correct Answer: (A)
Both A and R are true. Nichrome (nickel-chromium alloy) has high resistivity — it converts significant electrical energy into heat (Joule's law: H = I²Rt). Its very high melting point (~1400°C) ensures it does not melt at operating temperatures, making it ideal for heating elements.
🧠 HOTS
Q3. An electric bell stops ringing when the iron strip inside touches the electromagnet. Explain the mechanism by which the bell keeps ringing automatically in a circuit.
Answer: When current flows, the electromagnet attracts the iron strip (armature), which strikes the bell gong and rings it. However, when the armature moves toward the magnet, it breaks the circuit at the contact screw, stopping the current. With no current, the electromagnet loses its magnetism and the spring pulls the armature back to its original position, completing the circuit again. Current flows once more and the cycle repeats rapidly, causing the bell to ring continuously.
5

Chapter 5: Exploring Forces

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
Distinguish between contact forces and non-contact forces. Give two examples of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Contact Forces act only when two objects are physically touching each other. Examples: Muscular force (pushing a table), Friction (between shoe and floor).

Non-contact Forces can act on objects without physical contact, even across empty space. Examples: Gravitational force (Earth pulling the moon), Magnetic force (magnet attracting iron filings).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Contact force definition + 2 examples1 Mark
Non-contact force definition + 2 examples1 Mark
Q2
What is friction? State two advantages and two disadvantages of friction in everyday life.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Friction is a force that opposes the relative motion (or tendency to motion) between two surfaces in contact. It acts in the direction opposite to the direction of motion.

Advantages:

  • Enables walking — without friction between shoes and ground, we would slip.
  • Brakes on vehicles work due to friction between brake pads and wheels.

Disadvantages:

  • Causes wear and tear of machinery parts, tyres, and shoe soles.
  • Generates unwanted heat in engines, reducing their efficiency.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of friction (opposes relative motion)1 Mark
Two correct advantages1 Mark
Two correct disadvantages1 Mark
Q3
Explain the difference between mass and weight. A student weighs 50 kg on Earth. What would be her weight on the Moon? (g on Earth = 10 m/s², g on Moon = 1.6 m/s²)
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Mass: The amount of matter in an object. It remains constant everywhere (SI unit: kilogram, kg).

Weight: The gravitational force with which a planet pulls an object. Weight = Mass × g. It varies from planet to planet (SI unit: Newton, N).

Calculation:

Weight on Earth = 50 × 10 = 500 N

Weight on Moon = 50 × 1.6 = 80 N

Her weight on the Moon would be 80 N — about one-sixth of her weight on Earth.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Mass vs. Weight distinction (constant vs. variable with g)1 Mark
Formula W = mg and correct calculation on Earth1 Mark
Correct weight on Moon (80 N)1 Mark
Q4
Define gravitational force. Is gravity a contact or non-contact force? Explain why an apple falls towards the Earth rather than the Earth moving towards the apple.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Gravitational Force: The universal force of attraction exerted by every mass upon every other mass in the universe. It is a non-contact force because it acts across empty space without physical touch.

Why Apple Falls: By Newton's third law, the apple and Earth exert equal and opposite forces on each other. However, because Earth has immense mass compared to the apple (F = ma ⟹ a = F/m), Earth's acceleration is imperceptible while the apple's acceleration is prominent (9.8 m/s²), making the apple fall towards the Earth.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of gravity and non-contact classification1 Mark
Explaining acceleration disparity using F = ma2 Marks
Q5
What is atmospheric pressure? Why does atmospheric pressure decrease with increasing altitude, and why do mountaineers experience nosebleeds at high altitudes?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Atmospheric Pressure: The force exerted per unit area by the weight of the air column above Earth's surface.

Decrease with Altitude: As altitude increases, the height and density of the overlying air column decrease, so atmospheric pressure decreases.

Nosebleeds: At high altitudes, the external atmospheric pressure drops significantly below the internal blood pressure in human capillaries. This pressure imbalance causes delicate nasal blood vessels to rupture, leading to nosebleeds.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of atmospheric pressure1 Mark
Reason for decrease with altitude1 Mark
Pressure imbalance causing nosebleeds1 Mark
Q6
Describe an activity to demonstrate electrostatic force using a plastic comb and bits of dry paper.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Activity:

  • 1. Rub a clean plastic comb vigorously through dry hair several times.
  • 2. Bring the comb close to small, dry bits of paper lying on a table without touching them.
  • 3. Observation: The bits of paper jump up and stick to the comb.
  • 4. Explanation: Friction charges the comb with electrostatic charge, which exerts an attractive non-contact electrostatic force on the neutral paper bits.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Procedure: rubbing comb in hair1 Mark
Observation and electrostatic force explanation1 Mark
Q7
Why do deep-sea divers have to wear specially reinforced pressurized diving suits?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Liquid pressure increases directly with depth due to the weight of the water column above (P = hρg). At extreme ocean depths, hydrostatic pressure is immense and would crush human lungs and organs. Reinforced diving suits balance this external hydrostatic pressure, protecting divers.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Hydrostatic pressure increases with depth1 Mark
Reinforced suit resists crushing water pressure1 Mark
Q8
In a tug-of-war match, Team A pulls with a force of 1500 N to the left and Team B pulls with a force of 1200 N to the right. Calculate the net force and state the direction of motion.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Forces acting in opposite directions along the same line are subtracted:

Net Force = Force (Left) − Force (Right) = 1500 N − 1200 N = 300 N towards the Left.

The rope and the teams will accelerate towards Team A (to the left).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Formula: F_net = 1500 N - 1200 N = 300 N1 Mark
Direction: Towards Team A (Left)1 Mark
Q9
Why do gymnasts apply coarse chalk powder to their hands before performing on gymnastic bars?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Gymnasts apply coarse magnesium carbonate chalk powder to their palms to absorb sweat and increase friction between their hands and the bar, providing a firm, secure grip that prevents accidental slipping and severe falls.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Sweat absorption cited1 Mark
Increasing friction for secure non-slip grip1 Mark
Q10
What is fluid friction (drag)? State two design features used in aeroplanes and high-speed trains to minimize drag.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Fluid Friction (Drag): The frictional resistive force exerted by fluids (liquids and gases) on solid objects moving through them.

Design Adaptations:

  • 1. Streamlined Body Shape: Aeroplanes and bullet trains have pointed, aerodynamic fronts mimicking birds and fish to allow air layers to flow smoothly around them without turbulence.
  • 2. Smooth Exterior Polishing: Highly polished exterior skins minimize surface drag resistance.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of fluid drag1 Mark
Streamlined body shape adaptation1 Mark
Smooth surface engineering1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 5CBSE Pattern
📝 Case Study Based
Q1. In a school science fair, students tested how surface texture affects friction. They slid the same wooden block on three surfaces: smooth glass, rough sandpaper, and polished wood. They measured the force needed to move the block. Results: Glass: 2 N, Polished wood: 5 N, Sandpaper: 12 N.

(a) Which surface had the greatest friction? (b) What conclusion can you draw from the data? (c) What is the scientific term for friction between a stationary object and surface?
(a) Sandpaper had the greatest friction (12 N required).
(b) Rougher surfaces have greater friction because irregular surface projections (irregularities) interlock more deeply, requiring greater force to overcome resistance.
(c) The friction between a stationary object and a surface (before motion begins) is called Static Friction.
⚖️ Assertion–Reason
Q2. Assertion (A): A ball thrown upward comes back to the ground even without any push downward.
Reason (R): Gravitational force, which is a non-contact force, continuously pulls all objects with mass towards the Earth's centre.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.  (B) Both true but R is not correct explanation.  (C) A true, R false.  (D) A false, R true.
Correct Answer: (A)
Both statements are true and R correctly explains A. Gravity is a non-contact attractive force that acts on the ball throughout its upward journey, decelerating it, bringing it to rest momentarily, and then accelerating it back toward Earth. No physical contact is needed for gravity to act.
6

Chapter 6: Pressure, Winds, Storms, and Cyclones

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
Define pressure. State how pressure changes with area when force is constant. Give one practical example.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Pressure is defined as the force acting perpendicularly per unit area of a surface. Formula: Pressure = Force / Area (SI unit: Pascal, Pa).

Inverse Relation: When force is constant, pressure is inversely proportional to area — smaller area means greater pressure.

Example: A sharp knife cuts easily because the small area of the blade concentrates force, producing high pressure on the object being cut.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition and formula (P = F/A)1 Mark
Inverse relationship + correct example1 Mark
Q2
Explain how unequal heating of the Earth's surface causes winds to blow.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

The Sun heats the Earth's surface unequally — land heats up faster than water, and equatorial regions receive more heat than polar regions.

When a region heats up, the air above it becomes warm, expands, becomes lighter, and rises. This creates a region of low pressure at the surface.

In cooler adjacent regions, the air is denser and heavier, creating high pressure. Air always moves from high pressure to low pressure regions — this movement of air is called wind. The greater the pressure difference, the stronger the wind.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Unequal heating — warm air rises, creating low pressure1 Mark
Cool regions have high pressure1 Mark
Wind blows from high pressure to low pressure1 Mark
Q3
How are cyclones formed? What safety measures should people in coastal areas follow during a cyclone warning?
5 Marks (80–120 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~110 words)

Formation of Cyclones: Cyclones form over warm tropical ocean waters (above 26°C). The warm, moist air over the ocean rises rapidly, creating a large zone of very low pressure at the surface. Surrounding cooler air rushes in to fill this low-pressure zone. Due to Earth's rotation (Coriolis effect), this rushing air begins to rotate in a spiral (anticlockwise in Northern Hemisphere). As the rotating winds gain speed and the system intensifies, it forms a cyclone with a calm centre called the eye. Cyclones bring extremely strong winds, torrential rain, and storm surges to coastal areas.

Safety Measures:

  • Evacuate to designated cyclone shelters immediately on receiving warnings.
  • Stock up on emergency supplies — drinking water, food, medicines, torches.
  • Stay indoors, away from windows and doors during the storm.
  • Do not venture near the sea or rivers during and after the cyclone.
  • Switch off all electrical appliances and gas connections.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Warm ocean water causes warm moist air to rise (low pressure)1 Mark
Cooler air rushes in — spiral rotation (Coriolis effect)1 Mark
Eye of cyclone — calm centre1 Mark
Two safety measures1 Mark
Two more safety measures1 Mark
Q4
Describe an activity to prove that air expands on heating and becomes lighter (less dense).
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Activity:

  • 1. Take an empty glass bottle and tie a deflated balloon tightly over its mouth.
  • 2. Place the bottle in a trough filled with hot boiling water. Observe the balloon inflate.
  • 3. Now place the bottle into ice-cold water. Observe the balloon deflate.
  • 4. Conclusion: Hot water heats the air inside the bottle. Air expands upon heating and exerts upward pressure, inflating the balloon. Cold air contracts, proving air expands on heating.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Experimental setup (bottle + balloon + hot water)1 Mark
Observation in hot and cold water1 Mark
Conclusion confirming thermal expansion of air1 Mark
Q5
Why do high-speed winds blowing over thatched roofs blow them off without touching them? Explain the underlying scientific principle.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

This phenomenon is explained by Bernoulli's principle:

  • When high-speed winds blow over the top of a thatched roof, they create an area of reduced air pressure above the roof.
  • Meanwhile, the air inside the house remains relatively calm and maintains normal, higher atmospheric pressure.
  • This large upward pressure difference exerts a powerful net upward force (lift) on the roof, lifting and blowing it off.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Naming Bernoulli's principle / wind velocity effect1 Mark
Low pressure above roof due to high wind speed1 Mark
Upward thrust from higher internal pressure lifting roof1 Mark
Q6
What is an anemometer? How does it help meteorologists in predicting severe storms and cyclones?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

An anemometer is an instrument with rotating cups used to measure wind speed and direction. By continuously recording rapid increases in wind speeds and pressure drops, meteorologists can track tropical disturbances, predict cyclone landfall paths, and issue timely public disaster warnings.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of anemometer (measures wind speed)1 Mark
Role in cyclone tracking and disaster warning1 Mark
Q7
Differentiate between a cyclone and a tornado in terms of origin, shape, and typical wind speeds.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Cyclone: Forms over warm tropical oceans; diameter spans 100 to 500 km; wind speeds range from 120 to 250 km/h; forms a large spiraling storm system with a calm central "eye".

Tornado: Forms over land from severe thunderstorms; takes the shape of a dark, funnel-shaped cloud reaching from the sky to the ground; diameter is narrow (few meters to 1 km); wind speeds are violent, reaching up to 300 to 500 km/h.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Cyclone features (origin over warm sea, size, speed)1.5 Marks
Tornado features (land thunderstorm, funnel cloud, speed)1.5 Marks
Q8
What safety precautions should a person take if caught outdoors in an open field during a severe thunderstorm accompanied by lightning?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Outdoor Thunderstorm Precautions:

  • 1. Do not take shelter under isolated tall trees or near metal poles/fences.
  • 2. If in an open field with no shelter, squat low on the ground with hands on knees and head tucked between knees (lightning crouch) to minimize height and contact with ground.
  • 3. Do not hold metal-tipped umbrellas or use wired electronic devices.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Avoid isolated trees and metal objects1 Mark
Squat in lightning crouch position1 Mark
Q9
Why do deep-sea divers have to wear specially reinforced pressurized diving suits?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Liquid pressure increases directly with water depth. At great ocean depths, the colossal crushing hydrostatic pressure of water is high enough to crush human internal organs. Reinforced diving suits counteract this external pressure and maintain safe internal breathing pressure.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Increase of liquid pressure with depth explained1 Mark
Protection of human body/lungs from crushing1 Mark
Q10
Explain the formation of a tropical cyclone. Why does low atmospheric pressure at the centre play a critical role?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Formation of Cyclones:

  1. Intense solar heat warms ocean water. As warm, moist air rises rapidly, it creates a region of very low atmospheric pressure at the sea surface.
  2. Cooler surrounding air rushes into this low-pressure area from all sides.
  3. Earth's rotation imparts a spiral spin (Coriolis effect) to the rising column of warm air, releasing latent heat as moisture condenses into clouds, fueling an enormous revolving wind storm with a calm low-pressure central "eye".
CBSE Marking Scheme
Warm rising air creating low-pressure centre1 Mark
Inrush of cooler air and condensation heat release1 Mark
Spiral storm structure with central eye1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 6CBSE Pattern
⚖️ Assertion–Reason
Q1. Assertion (A): Snowshoes have a very large flat surface so that a person does not sink into snow.
Reason (R): Larger contact area distributes the body weight over a greater surface, reducing pressure on the snow.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A.  (B) Both true, R not correct explanation.  (C) A true, R false.  (D) A false, R true.
Correct Answer: (A)
Using P = F/A, when area increases with constant weight (force), pressure decreases. Snowshoes spread body weight over a large surface, reducing pressure per unit area below the threshold that would cause sinking into soft snow. This is the same principle behind camel's wide feet on sand.
🧠 HOTS
Q2. Explain why the "eye" of a cyclone (the centre) is calm, while the area surrounding the eye experiences the most violent winds and rainfall.
Answer: The eye of a cyclone is a region of very low pressure where air sinks downward (subsiding air). This sinking air suppresses cloud formation, resulting in calm winds, clear skies, and no rainfall. Around the eye lies the eye wall — the most dangerous zone — where air spirals rapidly upward, generating extreme winds (200+ km/h), towering thunderclouds, and intense rainfall. The contrast between the sinking centre and the rising air in the eye wall creates this dramatic difference.
7

Chapter 7: Particulate Nature of Matter

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
State the kinetic theory of matter. How does it explain the different states of matter — solid, liquid, and gas?
5 Marks (80–120 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~110 words)

Kinetic Theory of Matter: All matter is made up of tiny particles (atoms or molecules) that are in constant, random motion. The energy of these particles determines the state of matter.

Solids: Particles are tightly packed in fixed positions. They vibrate in place but do not move freely. Strong intermolecular forces maintain a definite shape and volume.

Liquids: Particles are close together but can slide past each other. They have moderate kinetic energy. Liquids have a definite volume but take the shape of their container.

Gases: Particles are far apart with very weak intermolecular forces and very high kinetic energy. Gas particles move rapidly and randomly in all directions, filling any container completely — no definite shape or volume.

Temperature increases the kinetic energy of particles, causing matter to change from solid → liquid → gas.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Statement of kinetic theory (particles in constant motion)1 Mark
Solid — tightly packed, vibrate in place, definite shape1 Mark
Liquid — close, can slide, definite volume, no fixed shape1 Mark
Gas — far apart, high energy, no definite shape or volume1 Mark
Temperature increases kinetic energy → state changes1 Mark
Q2
What is diffusion? How does the particulate nature of matter explain the process of diffusion?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Diffusion is the spontaneous mixing and spreading of particles of one substance into another due to their random motion, moving from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration, until uniform distribution is achieved.

Explanation using particulate nature: Since all matter consists of constantly moving particles with spaces between them, particles of one substance can move into the intermolecular spaces of another. For example, when a perfume bottle is opened in a room, fragrance molecules rapidly diffuse through air particles, spreading the scent throughout the room without any external force.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of diffusion (high to low concentration)1 Mark
Explanation using inter-particle spaces and motion1 Mark
Correct example (perfume/gas diffusion)1 Mark
Q3
Why do solids have a fixed shape but liquids and gases do not? Use the particulate model to explain.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Solids have a fixed shape because their particles are held tightly together by strong intermolecular forces, allowing only vibration in fixed positions — particles cannot flow past each other.

Liquids and Gases have no fixed shape because their particles have weaker intermolecular forces and enough kinetic energy to slide past each other (liquids) or move freely in all directions (gases), taking the shape of their container.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Solids — strong forces, vibrate in fixed positions1 Mark
Liquids/gases — weaker forces, particles flow freely1 Mark
Q4
Describe an activity using water and potassium permanganate crystals to demonstrate that particles of matter have spaces between them.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Activity:

  • 1. Take 100 mL of water in a graduated beaker and mark the water level.
  • 2. Add 2–3 crystals of purple potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) and stir gently.
  • 3. Observation: The water turns uniformly deep purple, but the water level does not rise noticeably.
  • 4. Inference: The crystals break into millions of tiny particles that distribute themselves into the spaces (intermolecular spaces) between water molecules.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Procedure using beaker, water, KMnO₄1 Mark
Observation that volume does not increase1 Mark
Inference: particles occupy intermolecular spaces1 Mark
Q5
Why does the smell of hot sizzling food reach us several meters away, while to smell cold food we have to go close?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Particles of matter possess kinetic energy that increases with temperature. In hot food, aromatic vapors have high kinetic energy, resulting in a much faster rate of diffusion through air. In cold food, kinetic energy is very low, so diffusion is sluggish, requiring us to get close to smell it.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Kinetic energy increases with temperature1 Mark
Higher diffusion rate of hot vapors vs cold food1 Mark
Q6
What is Brownian motion? What two key facts about particles does it prove?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Brownian Motion is the continuous, random, zig-zag motion of microscopic particles suspended in a fluid (liquid or gas), first observed by Robert Brown.

Key Facts Proven:

  • 1. Matter is made up of tiny individual particles.
  • 2. Particles of matter are in constant, ceaseless random motion.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of zig-zag particle motion1 Mark
Two facts: particulate nature and constant motion1 Mark
Q7
Why is ice at 273 K (0°C) more effective in cooling drinks than water at the same temperature?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Ice at 273 K absorbs latent heat of fusion (3.34 × 10⁵ J/kg) from the beverage to melt into liquid water at 0°C, in addition to sensible heat. Liquid water at 273 K does not absorb latent heat. Hence, ice absorbs significantly more heat energy, providing superior cooling.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Absorption of latent heat of fusion by ice1 Mark
Water at 0°C lacks extra latent heat capacity1 Mark
Q8
Differentiate between evaporation and boiling with four distinct points of comparison.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Evaporation vs Boiling:

  • 1. Temperature: Evaporation occurs at any temperature below the boiling point; boiling occurs only at a fixed temperature (boiling point).
  • 2. Nature: Evaporation is a surface phenomenon; boiling is a bulk phenomenon involving the entire liquid.
  • 3. Bubbles: No bubbles form during evaporation; bubbles of vapor form throughout the liquid during boiling.
  • 4. Cooling Effect: Evaporation causes cooling of the surroundings; boiling maintains temperature without cooling.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Temperature & surface vs bulk difference1.5 Marks
Bubbles & cooling effect difference1.5 Marks
Q9
Why does a drop of ink placed gently in a glass of water spread throughout without stirring? Name the phenomenon.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

This occurs due to diffusion. Water molecules and ink particles are in constant, random Brownian motion. The ink particles collide with water molecules and spread into the empty intermolecular spaces between water molecules until uniformly distributed.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Identification of diffusion phenomenon1 Mark
Random molecular motion and intermolecular spaces1 Mark
Q10
Compare solids, liquids, and gases on the basis of: (a) Intermolecular force of attraction, (b) Intermolecular space, (c) Compressibility.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer
PropertySolidsLiquidsGases
Intermolecular ForceExtremely strongModerateNegligible
Intermolecular SpaceVery closely packedLoosely packedVery large spaces
CompressibilityIncompressibleAlmost incompressibleHighly compressible
CBSE Marking Scheme
Intermolecular forces compared accurately1 Mark
Intermolecular spaces compared accurately1 Mark
Compressibility comparison accurate1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 7CBSE Pattern
⚖️ Assertion–Reason
Q1. Assertion (A): Gases can be compressed much more easily than liquids or solids.
Reason (R): In gases, particles are very far apart with large empty spaces between them, so they can be pushed closer together easily.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation.  (B) Both true, R not correct explanation.  (C) A true, R false.  (D) A false, R true.
Correct Answer: (A)
In solids and liquids, particles are already close together with minimal empty space, making compression very difficult. In gases, large inter-particle spaces allow particles to be pushed closer without particle-particle repulsion becoming significant at moderate pressures. This is why LPG is compressed into cylinders.
🧠 HOTS
Q2. A drop of ink placed in still water slowly colours the entire glass after some time, even without stirring. What property of matter does this demonstrate? How would the rate of this process change if the water were heated?
Answer: This demonstrates diffusion — the spontaneous movement of ink particles from higher concentration (drop) to lower concentration (rest of water) through random motion. On heating, water molecules gain higher kinetic energy and move faster, which also speeds up ink particle movement. Therefore, diffusion rate increases with temperature — the ink would spread much faster in hot water than in cold water.
8

Chapter 8: Nature of Matter: Elements, Compounds, and Mixtures

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
Differentiate between elements, compounds, and mixtures with one example each.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Element: A pure substance made of only one kind of atom that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means. Example: Oxygen (O₂) — consists only of oxygen atoms.

Compound: A pure substance formed when two or more elements chemically combine in a fixed ratio. Its properties are entirely different from its constituent elements. Example: Water (H₂O) — hydrogen and oxygen combine in 2:1 ratio.

Mixture: A combination of two or more substances mixed together in any ratio without a chemical reaction. Components retain their original properties and can be separated physically. Example: Saltwater — salt and water mixed together.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Element definition + example1 Mark
Compound definition + example1 Mark
Mixture definition + example1 Mark
Q2
Classify the following as elements, compounds, or mixtures: (a) Air (b) Iron (c) Salt (NaCl) (d) Carbon dioxide (e) Milk (f) Gold
2 Marks
✅ CBSE Standard Answer
  • (a) Air → Mixture (mixture of N₂, O₂, CO₂, Ar, etc.)
  • (b) Iron → Element (only iron atoms, symbol Fe)
  • (c) Salt (NaCl) → Compound (Na and Cl chemically combined in 1:1 ratio)
  • (d) Carbon dioxide → Compound (C and O₂ combined: CO₂)
  • (e) Milk → Mixture (water, fat, proteins, sugars mixed together)
  • (f) Gold → Element (only gold atoms, symbol Au)
CBSE Marking Scheme
Any 3 correct classifications1 Mark
Remaining 3 correct classifications1 Mark
Q3
How are compounds different from mixtures? Give three points of difference.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~65 words)
  • 1. Formation: Compounds are formed by a chemical reaction between elements in a fixed ratio; Mixtures are formed by simply physically mixing substances in any ratio.
  • 2. Properties: Compounds have entirely different properties from their constituent elements (e.g., H₂O is liquid, but H₂ and O₂ are gases); Mixture components retain their original properties.
  • 3. Separation: Compound components can only be separated by chemical methods (electrolysis); Mixture components can be separated by simple physical methods (filtration, evaporation, magnetic separation).
CBSE Marking Scheme
Formation difference (chemical reaction vs. physical mixing)1 Mark
Properties difference (changed vs. retained)1 Mark
Separation method difference (chemical vs. physical)1 Mark
Q4
Define atomicity. State the atomicity of: (i) Helium (ii) Oxygen (iii) Ozone (iv) Phosphorus (v) Sulphur.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Atomicity: The number of atoms constituting a single molecule of an element.

  • (i) Helium (He): Monoatomic (Atomicity = 1)
  • (ii) Oxygen (O₂): Diatomic (Atomicity = 2)
  • (iii) Ozone (O₃): Triatomic (Atomicity = 3)
  • (iv) Phosphorus (P₄): Tetra-atomic (Atomicity = 4)
  • (v) Sulphur (S₈): Polyatomic (Atomicity = 8)
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of atomicity1 Mark
Correct atomicity of all 5 elements2 Marks
Q5
Write the chemical formulas of the following compounds using the criss-cross method:
(i) Magnesium chloride
(ii) Calcium oxide
(iii) Aluminium sulphate
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Chemical Formulas:

  • (i) Magnesium chloride: Mg²⁺ and Cl⁻ ⟹ Criss-cross valencies ⟹ MgCl₂.
  • (ii) Calcium oxide: Ca²⁺ and O²⁻ ⟹ Ratio 2:2 simplifies to 1:1 ⟹ CaO.
  • (iii) Aluminium sulphate: Al³⁺ and SO₄²⁻ ⟹ Criss-cross ⟹ Al₂(SO₄)₃.
CBSE Marking Scheme
(i) MgCl₂1 Mark
(ii) CaO1 Mark
(iii) Al₂(SO₄)₃1 Mark
Q6
Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with two examples of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Homogeneous Mixture: Has uniform composition and properties throughout with no visible boundary of separation. Examples: Salt solution in water, brass (alloy of Cu and Zn).

Heterogeneous Mixture: Does not have uniform composition throughout and exhibits distinct visible phases. Examples: Sand in water, mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Homogeneous definition + 2 examples1 Mark
Heterogeneous definition + 2 examples1 Mark
Q7
What is chromatography? Describe how paper chromatography is used to separate different dye pigments present in black ink.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Chromatography is a separation technique used to separate components of a mixture based on differences in their solubility in a mobile phase flowing over a stationary phase.

Paper Chromatography of Ink: Place a drop of black ink near the bottom edge of a strip of filter paper (stationary phase). Suspend the paper in a jar containing water (mobile phase) so the ink spot remains just above the water level. As water rises by capillary action, more soluble dyes travel faster and higher, separating the black ink into distinct colored bands (e.g., cyan, magenta, yellow).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of chromatography1 Mark
Procedure of paper chromatography1 Mark
Separation mechanism based on solubility1 Mark
Q8
Why is pure water (H₂O) classified as a chemical compound and not as a mixture? Give three supporting reasons.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Water is classified as a compound because:

  • 1. Hydrogen and oxygen are chemically bonded in a fixed mass ratio of 1 : 8.
  • 2. Properties of water (extinguishes fire) are entirely different from its constituents (H₂ burns explosively, O₂ supports combustion).
  • 3. Water cannot be separated into hydrogen and oxygen by physical methods; only chemical electrolysis can separate them.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Fixed proportion by mass (1:8)0.5 Mark
Distinct properties from constituent elements1 Mark
Requires chemical means for separation0.5 Mark
Q9
State the Law of Conservation of Mass in chemical reactions. Give an illustrative example.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Law of Conservation of Mass: Formulated by Antoine Lavoisier, it states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction; total mass of reactants always equals total mass of products.

Example: When 100 g of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) is heated, it decomposes into 56 g of calcium oxide (CaO) and 44 g of carbon dioxide (CO₂). Total reactant mass (100 g) = Total product mass (56 + 44 = 100 g).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Statement of law (Lavoisier)1 Mark
Illustrative reaction example with balanced masses1 Mark
Q10
State two differences between a physical change and a chemical change with an example of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Comparison:

  • Physical Change: Reversible change in physical state, size, or shape where no new substance is formed (e.g., Melting of ice into water).
  • Chemical Change: Irreversible transformation where chemical bonds break and new substances with completely different chemical properties are formed (e.g., Rusting of iron, burning of paper).
CBSE Marking Scheme
Physical change defined with valid example1 Mark
Chemical change defined with valid example1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 8CBSE Pattern
🧠 HOTS
Q1. Water (H₂O) is formed when hydrogen burns in oxygen. However, water has completely different properties from both hydrogen (flammable gas) and oxygen (supports combustion). What does this tell us about the nature of compounds?
Answer: This tells us that compounds are new substances with entirely new properties that are different from the elements that form them. When hydrogen and oxygen combine chemically, their individual properties are lost and a completely new substance with new characteristics emerges. Water is neither flammable nor supports combustion — in fact, it extinguishes fire. This is a hallmark of a chemical reaction: new substances with new properties are always formed, unlike in mixtures where original properties are retained.
9

Chapter 9: The Amazing World of Solutes, Solvents, and Solutions

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
Define solute, solvent, and solution. Give one example of each in a solution of common salt in water.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Solute: The substance that gets dissolved in a solvent. Example: Common salt (NaCl).

Solvent: The substance in which the solute dissolves (usually present in larger amount). Example: Water (H₂O).

Solution: A homogeneous mixture formed when a solute completely dissolves in a solvent. Example: Salt water (saline solution) — salt uniformly distributed throughout water.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Correct definitions of solute and solvent1 Mark
Definition of solution + example identification1 Mark
Q2
What is solubility? State any three factors that affect the solubility of a substance.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Solubility: The maximum amount of a solute (in grams) that can dissolve in 100 g of solvent at a given temperature to form a saturated solution.

Three Factors Affecting Solubility:

  • 1. Temperature: Solubility of most solid solutes increases with increasing temperature (e.g., more sugar dissolves in hot water).
  • 2. Nature of Solute and Solvent: "Like dissolves like" — polar solvents (water) dissolve polar/ionic solutes (salt, sugar); non-polar solvents (oil) dissolve non-polar solutes.
  • 3. Pressure (for gases): Solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with increasing pressure (Henry's Law — explains fizzy drinks under pressure).
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of solubility1 Mark
Factor 1 — Temperature with example1 Mark
Factors 2 & 3 — Nature of solute/solvent & Pressure1 Mark
Q3
How would you separate a mixture of sand, salt, and iron filings? Describe the method step by step.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

Separation Method (Step by Step):

  • Step 1 — Magnetic Separation: Pass a magnet through the mixture to attract and remove the iron filings (iron is magnetic; sand and salt are not).
  • Step 2 — Dissolving in Water: Add water to the remaining sand-salt mixture. Salt dissolves in water, but sand does not.
  • Step 3 — Filtration: Filter the mixture through filter paper. Sand is collected as the residue; the salt solution (filtrate) passes through.
  • Step 4 — Evaporation: Heat the salt solution to evaporate the water. Pure salt crystals remain behind.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Step 1: Magnetic separation for iron filings1 Mark
Steps 2 & 3: Dissolving salt in water + filtration for sand1 Mark
Step 4: Evaporation to recover salt1 Mark
Q4
Differentiate between saturated, unsaturated, and supersaturated solutions.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Types of Solutions:

  • 1. Unsaturated Solution: A solution in which more solute can be dissolved at the given temperature.
  • 2. Saturated Solution: A solution in which no more solute can dissolve at that specific temperature.
  • 3. Supersaturated Solution: An unstable solution that contains more dissolved solute than a saturated solution at that temperature, prepared by cooling a hot saturated solution slowly without disturbance.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Unsaturated definition1 Mark
Saturated definition1 Mark
Supersaturated definition1 Mark
Q5
What is the Tyndall effect? Why do true solutions NOT show Tyndall effect while colloids do?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Tyndall Effect: The scattering of a beam of light by dispersed particles in a medium, making the path of the light beam visible.

True solution particles (ions/molecules) are smaller than 1 nanometre (10⁻⁹ m) and cannot scatter visible light wavelengths. In colloids, particle size ranges from 1 to 1000 nm, which is large enough to scatter light and illuminate the path.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of Tyndall effect1 Mark
Particle size contrast: < 1 nm vs 1–1000 nm1 Mark
Q6
Describe the process of crystallization used to obtain pure copper sulphate crystals from an impure sample.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Process of Crystallization:

  • 1. Dissolve impure copper sulphate in a minimum amount of warm water in a beaker.
  • 2. Filter the solution to remove insoluble solid impurities.
  • 3. Heat the filtrate gently on a water bath until the crystallization point is reached (tested by dipping a glass rod and checking if crystals form on cooling).
  • 4. Allow the saturated solution to cool slowly at room temperature undisturbed. Pure copper sulphate crystals separate out. Filter and dry the crystals with filter paper.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Dissolution and filtration of impurities1 Mark
Evaporation to crystallization point1 Mark
Slow cooling and separation of pure crystals1 Mark
Q7
Calculate the concentration in mass percentage of a solution containing 40 g of common salt dissolved in 320 g of water.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Calculation:

  • Mass of solute (salt) = 40 g
  • Mass of solvent (water) = 320 g
  • Total mass of solution = 40 g + 320 g = 360 g
  • Mass % = (Mass of solute / Mass of solution) × 100 = (40 / 360) × 100 = 100 / 9 = 11.11%.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Calculating total mass of solution = 360 g1 Mark
Formula and evaluation = 11.11%1 Mark
Q8
Compare a true solution, a colloid, and a suspension based on: (i) particle size, (ii) appearance, and (iii) stability.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Comparison:

  • Particle Size: True solution: < 1 nm; Colloid: 1 nm to 1000 nm; Suspension: > 1000 nm.
  • Appearance: True solution: Clear and transparent; Colloid: Translucent / milky; Suspension: Opaque / cloudy.
  • Stability: True solution: Completely stable (particles never settle); Colloid: Stable (particles do not settle on standing); Suspension: Unstable (particles settle at the bottom over time).
CBSE Marking Scheme
Particle size row correct1 Mark
Appearance row correct1 Mark
Stability row correct1 Mark
Q9
What happens when a saturated solution of potassium nitrate at 60°C is cooled down to room temperature (25°C)? Explain why.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

The solubility of solids in liquids generally decreases as temperature drops. When a hot saturated solution of potassium nitrate cools from 60°C to 25°C, the water cannot hold all the dissolved solute. The excess solute precipitates out in the form of solid potassium nitrate crystals at the bottom of the container.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Observation: crystals precipitate out1 Mark
Scientific reason: solubility decreases with falling temperature1 Mark
Q10
What is the Tyndall effect? Why does a true solution of salt in water not show the Tyndall effect while a colloidal milk solution does?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Tyndall Effect: The scattering of a visible light beam by suspended particles in a medium.

• Salt Solution: Solute ions are smaller than 1 nanometre, too tiny to scatter light rays.
• Milk: Colloidal fat and protein particles (1–1000 nm) are large enough to scatter light, making the light beam's illuminated path clearly visible.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of Tyndall effect1 Mark
Particle size comparison explaining light scattering1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 9CBSE Pattern
🧠 HOTS
Q1. When you open a cold bottle of soda, it fizzes a lot. But when the bottle gets warm, it fizzes less. Use your knowledge of solubility to explain this observation.
Answer: Soda contains carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas dissolved in water under high pressure. The solubility of gases in liquids decreases with increasing temperature and decreasing pressure. When the cold bottle is opened, pressure drops, and some CO₂ escapes (fizzing). As the soda warms up, the gas becomes even less soluble in warmer liquid and escapes faster — causing more fizzing initially but leaving a flat (CO₂-depleted) drink that fizzes less overall.
10

Chapter 10: Light: Mirrors and Lenses

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
State the laws of reflection of light. Give one practical application of a plane mirror.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Laws of Reflection:

  • 1. First Law: The angle of incidence (∠i) is always equal to the angle of reflection (∠r). Both angles are measured from the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence.
  • 2. Second Law: The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.

Application of Plane Mirror: Used in periscopes (to see around corners and over obstacles in submarines), dressing mirrors, solar reflectors, and kaleidoscopes.

CBSE Marking Scheme
First law of reflection (∠i = ∠r)1 Mark
Second law (all three rays in same plane)1 Mark
Practical application of plane mirror1 Mark
Q2
Compare concave and convex mirrors. Name one practical use of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

Concave Mirror: Inward-curved (converging) mirror. Converges light rays at the focus. Produces real, inverted, magnified images when object is beyond focus; virtual, erect, magnified image when object is close. Use: In torches, headlights, solar cookers, dentist's mirror.

Convex Mirror: Outward-curved (diverging) mirror. Produces virtual, erect, diminished images; gives a wide field of view. Use: Used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Concave mirror — converging, image type, one use1 Mark
Convex mirror — diverging, wide field, one use1 Mark
Q3
What is refraction of light? State the conditions under which refraction occurs. Give one everyday example.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~70 words)

Refraction: The bending of light when it passes from one transparent medium to another medium with a different optical density (different speed of light). Light bends towards the normal when moving into a denser medium and away from the normal when entering a less dense medium.

Conditions: (1) Light must pass from one medium to another. (2) The two media must have different refractive indices (optical densities).

Everyday Example: A pencil placed in a glass of water appears bent or broken at the water surface because light from the pencil bends (refracts) as it passes from water to air before reaching our eyes.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of refraction (bending due to medium change)1 Mark
Conditions for refraction (two different media)1 Mark
Correct everyday example (pencil in water / rainbow / pool depth)1 Mark
Q4
State four key characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Characteristics of Image in Plane Mirror:

  • 1. Virtual and Erect: The image cannot be projected onto a screen and is right side up.
  • 2. Same Size: The image height equals the object height (Magnification m = +1).
  • 3. Equidistant: The distance of the image behind the mirror equals the distance of the object in front of the mirror.
  • 4. Laterally Inverted: The left side of the object appears as the right side in the image.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Virtual and erect0.75 Mark
Same size as object0.75 Mark
Equal distance behind mirror0.75 Mark
Laterally inverted0.75 Mark
Q5
Differentiate between a real image and a virtual image with three points of difference.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Real Image vs Virtual Image:

  • 1. Formation: A real image is formed when reflected or refracted rays actually intersect; a virtual image is formed when rays appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror/lens.
  • 2. Screen Projection: A real image can be obtained on a screen; a virtual image cannot be captured on a screen.
  • 3. Orientation: A real image is always inverted; a virtual image is always erect.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Ray intersection difference1 Mark
Capture on screen difference1 Mark
Inverted vs erect orientation1 Mark
Q6
Describe the nature, size, and position of the image formed by a convex lens when an object is placed:
(i) At 2F₁
(ii) Between F₁ and optical centre O
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Image Formation by Convex Lens:

  • (i) Object at 2F₁: Image is formed at 2F₂ on the opposite side. Nature: Real and inverted. Size: Same size as the object (m = −1).
  • (ii) Object between F₁ and O: Image is formed on the same side as the object. Nature: Virtual and erect. Size: Magnified (enlarged) (used as a magnifying glass).
CBSE Marking Scheme
(i) Position at 2F₂, real, inverted, same size1.5 Marks
(ii) Position on same side, virtual, erect, magnified1.5 Marks
Q7
What is dispersion of white light? Name the seven constituent colours in order from minimum deviation to maximum deviation.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Dispersion: The phenomenon of splitting white light into its seven constituent spectral colours when passing through a triangular glass prism.

In order from minimum deviation (top) to maximum deviation (bottom): Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, and Violet (ROYGBIV). Red bends the least because it has the longest wavelength; violet bends the most.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of dispersion1 Mark
Correct ROYGBIV sequence with deviation order1 Mark
Q8
Why are convex mirrors universally used as rear-view (wing) mirrors in automobiles? Give two reasons.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Convex mirrors are preferred as rear-view mirrors because:

  • 1. They always produce an erect, diminished virtual image of traffic behind.
  • 2. Because they curve outward, they provide a much wider field of view than plane or concave mirrors, allowing drivers to see more road area behind.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Erect and diminished image1 Mark
Wider field of view1 Mark
Q9
What type of image is always formed by a concave lens, regardless of object distance?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

A concave (diverging) lens always forms an image that is:

  • 1. Virtual and Erect
  • 2. Diminished (smaller than the object)
  • 3. Located on the same side of the lens, between the optical centre O and principal focus F.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Virtual and erect1 Mark
Diminished and located between O and F1 Mark
Q10
What is total internal reflection? Give two practical modern applications of this optical phenomenon.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Total Internal Reflection (TIR) occurs when light travelling in a denser medium strikes the boundary of a rarer medium at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle, reflecting 100% of light back into the denser medium.

Applications: (1) Optical fibre communications (high-speed internet), (2) Sparkling brilliance of cut diamonds, and (3) Medical endoscopes.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition with critical angle condition1 Mark
Two applications (optical fibres, endoscopes, diamonds)1 Mark
Q11
State the laws of reflection of light. How does diffuse reflection differ from regular reflection?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Laws of Reflection:

  1. The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection (∠i = ∠r).
  2. The incident ray, normal at the point of incidence, and reflected ray all lie in the same geometric plane.

Regular vs Diffuse Reflection: Regular reflection occurs from ultra-smooth surfaces (mirrors) producing sharp images; diffuse reflection occurs from rough surfaces scattering rays in irregular directions.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Both laws of reflection stated1 Mark
Regular vs diffuse reflection differentiated1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 10CBSE Pattern
⚖️ Assertion–Reason
Q1. Assertion (A): Convex lenses are used to correct long-sightedness (hypermetropia).
Reason (R): A convex lens converges the incoming light rays, bringing the focus back onto the retina for a person who cannot see nearby objects clearly.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A.  (B) Both true, R not correct explanation.  (C) A true, R false.  (D) A false, R true.
Correct Answer: (A)
In hypermetropia, the eyeball is too short or the lens cannot converge light sufficiently, so the image forms behind the retina. A convex (converging) lens worn in front of the eye pre-converges the light rays, effectively shifting the image forward onto the retina, restoring clear near vision.
11

Chapter 11: Keeping Time with the Skies

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
Explain why we see only one side of the Moon from Earth. What is this phenomenon called?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~45 words)

We always see only one side of the Moon because the Moon's rotation period around its own axis is exactly equal to its revolution period around Earth — both are approximately 27.3 days. This is called synchronous rotation (or tidal locking). As a result, the same face of the Moon always points toward Earth.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Rotation period = revolution period (27.3 days)1 Mark
Phenomenon name: Synchronous rotation / Tidal locking1 Mark
Q2
What are the phases of the Moon? Explain why the Moon appears to change shape throughout the month.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

Phases of the Moon: The Moon does not produce its own light — it only reflects sunlight. As the Moon revolves around Earth, different portions of its illuminated half face Earth, causing it to appear to change shape. These apparent shapes are called phases of the Moon.

Key Phases: New Moon (not visible) → Waxing Crescent → First Quarter (half-lit) → Waxing Gibbous → Full Moon (fully lit) → Waning Gibbous → Last Quarter → Waning Crescent → New Moon again. One complete cycle takes ~29.5 days (a lunar month).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Moon reflects sunlight — does not emit its own light1 Mark
Revolution causes different illuminated portions to face Earth1 Mark
Key phases named (New Moon, Full Moon, Quarter phases)1 Mark
Q3
Differentiate between natural satellites and artificial satellites. Give one example of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~40 words)

Natural Satellites are celestial bodies that orbit a planet naturally due to gravitational force, without being made by humans. Example: The Moon (Earth's natural satellite).

Artificial Satellites are man-made objects launched by rockets into orbit around Earth or other planets for specific purposes. Example: INSAT-3D (Indian weather satellite), Aryabhata (India's first satellite).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Natural satellite definition + example (Moon)1 Mark
Artificial satellite definition + example1 Mark
Q4
What causes the change of seasons on Earth? Explain why the 23.5° tilt of Earth's rotational axis is crucial.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Seasons are caused by the combination of Earth's revolution around the Sun and the tilt of its rotational axis at 23.5°.

As Earth orbits the Sun, the tilted hemisphere leaning towards the Sun receives more direct sunlight and experiences longer daylight hours, resulting in Summer. The hemisphere tilted away receives slanted rays and shorter days, resulting in Winter. If Earth's axis were perpendicular, there would be no seasons.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Revolution + 23.5° axial tilt1.5 Marks
Direct vs slanted rays and day length variation1.5 Marks
Q5
Define a light year. Why is it used to express astronomical distances instead of kilometres?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

A light year is the distance traversed by light in vacuum in one Julian year (365.25 days). 1 Light Year ≈ 9.46 × 10¹² km (nearly 9.46 trillion kilometres).

Distances between stars and galaxies are so enormous that writing them in kilometres produces cumbersome, unmanageable numbers. Light years provide a practical astronomical scale.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition and value (~9.46 × 10¹² km)1 Mark
Justification for immense cosmic scales1 Mark
Q6
Describe the constellation Ursa Major (Saptarshi). How can it be used to locate the Pole Star (Polaris)?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Ursa Major (Great Bear / Saptarshi): A prominent group of seven bright stars arranged in the shape of a big ladle or question mark.

Locating Pole Star: Look at the two "pointer stars" at the outer bowl of the ladle (Merak and Dubhe). Draw an imaginary straight line connecting them and extend it northward about five times the distance between them. It points directly to a moderately bright star—Polaris (the Pole Star).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Shape of Saptarshi described1 Mark
Method using two pointer stars1 Mark
Q7
Differentiate between a solar eclipse and a lunar eclipse. State the Moon phase on which each occurs.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Solar Eclipse: Occurs when the Moon passes directly between the Sun and Earth, casting its shadow on Earth. It occurs exclusively on a New Moon day (Amavasya).

Lunar Eclipse: Occurs when the Earth passes directly between the Sun and the Moon, casting Earth's shadow on the Moon. It occurs exclusively on a Full Moon night (Poornima).

Eclipses do not occur every month because the Moon's orbital plane is tilted 5° relative to Earth's ecliptic plane.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Solar eclipse alignment and New Moon phase1.5 Marks
Lunar eclipse alignment and Full Moon phase1.5 Marks
Q8
What are shooting stars (meteors)? How do they differ from meteorites?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

A meteor ("shooting star") is a small piece of interplanetary rock or debris that enters Earth's atmosphere at high speed and burns up completely due to atmospheric friction, producing a glowing streak of light.

A meteorite is a larger meteoroid that does not burn up completely and actually survives the fiery atmospheric descent to hit Earth's surface.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Meteor definition (burns up in atmosphere)1 Mark
Meteorite definition (reaches Earth surface)1 Mark
Q9
Differentiate between planets and stars with four points of comparison.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Planets vs Stars:

  • 1. Light: Stars emit their own light; planets reflect sunlight.
  • 2. Twinkling: Stars twinkle due to atmospheric refraction; planets do not twinkle.
  • 3. Position: Stars appear stationary relative to each other; planets wander across constellations.
  • 4. Size & Temp: Stars are massive spheres of hot burning plasma; planets are much smaller, cooler solid/gaseous bodies.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Light emission and twinkling differences1 Mark
Relative position and physical nature differences1 Mark
Q10
Why do stars twinkle at night while planets do not? Explain using atmospheric refraction.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Stars are extremely distant point sources of light. As starlight travels through turbulent atmospheric layers of varying densities and temperatures, it undergoes continuous atmospheric refraction, causing starlight intensity to fluctuate rapidly (twinkling). Planets are much closer extended sources consisting of numerous light points that average out, resulting in steady non-twinkling light.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Point source starlight and atmospheric refraction explained1 Mark
Planets as extended sources canceling fluctuations1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 11CBSE Pattern
🧠 HOTS
Q1. Ancient civilisations used the sky to keep track of time and seasons. Explain how the moon's phases and the position of stars were used as natural clocks and calendars by early humans.
Answer: Early humans observed that the Moon goes through a complete cycle of phases (New Moon to Full Moon and back) in approximately 29.5 days. This became the basis of the lunar calendar (month = one lunar cycle). The position of stars (constellations like the Pole Star) helped navigate directions and track seasons — certain star patterns appeared only in specific seasons, helping farmers know when to plant crops. India's traditional Hindu calendar (Panchang) and Islamic calendar (Hijri) are lunar-based, reflecting this ancient knowledge.
12

Chapter 12: How Nature Works in Harmony

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
What is a food chain? Construct a food chain with at least four organisms from a forest ecosystem.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~40 words)

Food Chain: A linear sequence showing the transfer of energy and nutrients from one organism to the next through feeding relationships, beginning with a producer (plant) and ending with a top predator.

Forest Food Chain (4 organisms):

Grass → Deer → Tiger → Decomposers (bacteria/fungi)

Grass (Producer) → Deer (Primary Consumer) → Tiger (Secondary/Top Predator) → Decomposers

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of food chain1 Mark
Correct food chain with 4 organisms and arrows1 Mark
Q2
What is biodiversity? Why is the conservation of biodiversity important?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~72 words)

Biodiversity refers to the variety of all living organisms — plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms — found in a given area or on Earth, including diversity within species (genetic diversity), between species, and of ecosystems.

Importance of Conservation:

  • 1. Each species plays a role in food webs — loss of one species disrupts the entire ecosystem balance.
  • 2. Plants and organisms provide food, medicine, and oxygen; loss of biodiversity threatens human survival.
  • 3. Rich biodiversity ensures ecosystem resilience — ability to recover from natural disasters and climate change.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of biodiversity (variety of life forms)1 Mark
Importance: food web balance / ecosystem stability1 Mark
Importance: food, medicine, oxygen / resilience1 Mark
Q3
What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem? Why would an ecosystem collapse without them?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~48 words)

Role of Decomposers: Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) break down complex dead organic matter (dead plants and animals) into simple inorganic nutrients, returning them to the soil — this is the nutrient cycle.

Without Decomposers: Dead organisms would accumulate as waste, nutrients would be locked in dead matter, soil fertility would drop to zero, plants could not grow, and the entire food chain would collapse.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Role — break down dead matter, return nutrients to soil1 Mark
Consequence without decomposers (nutrient lock, ecosystem collapse)1 Mark
Q4
Construct a terrestrial food web consisting of grass, grasshopper, frog, snake, eagle, rabbit, and hawk. Identify the primary producer and top carnivores.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Food Web Construction:

  • Grass ➔ Grasshopper ➔ Frog ➔ Snake ➔ Eagle
  • Grass ➔ Rabbit ➔ Hawk / Eagle
  • Grass ➔ Grasshopper ➔ Hawk

Primary Producer: Green grass (synthesizes organic food by photosynthesis).
Top Carnivores: Eagle and Hawk (occupy highest trophic levels without natural predators).

CBSE Marking Scheme
Interconnected food chain pathways1.5 Marks
Identification of grass as producer and eagle/hawk as top carnivores1.5 Marks
Q5
Explain Lindeman's 10% law of energy transfer in an ecosystem. Why are food chains rarely longer than 4 to 5 trophic levels?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

10% Law: Only approximately 10% of the energy entering a trophic level is stored as biomass and made available to the next trophic level. The remaining 90% is dissipated as metabolic heat during respiration, movement, and excretion.

Limitation of Food Chain Length: Because 90% energy is lost at each successive step, very little usable energy remains after 4 or 5 levels. Insufficient energy remains to sustain a viable population of higher-order carnivores.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Statement of 10% law (90% loss as heat)1.5 Marks
Explanation of why chains cannot exceed 4-5 steps1.5 Marks
Q6
What is biomagnification? Explain with the example of non-biodegradable pesticides like DDT in an aquatic food chain.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Biomagnification is the progressive increase in the concentration of toxic, non-biodegradable chemicals at each successive trophic level in a food chain.

Example (DDT in Water): When DDT enters water bodies (0.000003 ppm), it is absorbed by zooplankton (0.04 ppm), accumulated in small fish (0.5 ppm), concentrated in large fish (2 ppm), and reaches dangerous lethal levels in fish-eating birds like ospreys (25 ppm), causing eggshell thinning and bird population collapse.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of biomagnification1 Mark
DDT aquatic chain example showing stepwise concentration rise2 Marks
Q7
Describe the role of symbiotic Rhizobium bacteria in the nitrogen cycle and maintaining soil fertility.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Rhizobium bacteria live in the root nodules of leguminous plants (peas, beans, gram). They convert atmospheric inert nitrogen gas (N₂) into water-soluble nitrogen compounds (nitrates) that plants absorb to synthesize proteins. In return, the plant provides food and shelter. When crop residues decay, they enrich the soil naturally with nitrates, eliminating the need for synthetic chemical fertilizers.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Symbiotic nitrogen fixation into nitrates1 Mark
Enrichment of soil fertility and reducing chemical fertilizer1 Mark
Q8
What are the major ecological impacts of large-scale deforestation on climate and soil?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Ecological Impacts of Deforestation:

  • 1. Soil Erosion & Desertification: Tree roots anchor topsoil; without trees, wind and rain wash fertile soil away, transforming fertile land into deserts.
  • 2. Disrupted Water Cycle & Droughts: Reduced transpiration lowers atmospheric humidity, causing decreased rainfall and droughts.
  • 3. Global Warming: Less CO₂ is sequestered by trees, increasing atmospheric CO₂ levels.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Soil erosion and desertification1 Mark
Reduced rainfall and enhanced greenhouse warming1 Mark
Q9
Differentiate between in-situ conservation and ex-situ conservation of biodiversity with one example of each.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

In-situ Conservation (On-site): Protecting endangered species in their natural habitats and ecosystems. Examples: National Parks (e.g., Jim Corbett), Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Biosphere Reserves.

Ex-situ Conservation (Off-site): Protecting endangered species outside their natural habitat in human-managed facilities. Examples: Zoological parks, Botanical gardens, and Cryogenic seed banks.

CBSE Marking Scheme
In-situ definition and example1 Mark
Ex-situ definition and example1 Mark
Q10
What is a trophic level in an ecological food chain? Why does available energy decrease at successive trophic levels?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Trophic Level: Each feeding step or nutrition stage in a food chain (Producers → Primary Consumers → Secondary Consumers → Tertiary Consumers).

Energy Reduction (10% Law): Only approximately 10% of chemical energy transfers to the next trophic level; the remaining 90% is lost as metabolic heat during respiration, digestion, and movement.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of trophic levels with sequence1 Mark
Explanation of 10% energy transfer law1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 12CBSE Pattern
🧠 HOTS
Q1. Rabbits were introduced into Australia by European settlers in the 1800s, and their population exploded rapidly. They ate large amounts of vegetation, leading to massive land degradation and threatening many native species. What ecological concept does this demonstrate? What could have been done to prevent this?
Answer: This demonstrates the problem of invasive species — organisms introduced into an ecosystem where they have no natural predators to control their population. Without natural checks (predators, parasites, disease), the invasive species outcompetes native species for food and habitat, causing ecological imbalance. Prevention: Strict biosecurity laws to prevent introduction of non-native species; thorough ecological impact assessment before any introduction; biological control by introducing natural predators from the species' home range.
13

Chapter 13: Our Home: Earth, a Unique Life-Sustaining Planet

NCERT Curiosity Exercise Solutions — CBSE Word Count & Marking Scheme

Q1
What makes Earth unique as a life-sustaining planet compared to other planets in our solar system?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

Earth's unique features for sustaining life:

  • 1. Liquid Water: Earth has vast oceans of liquid water, essential for all biological processes. No other planet in our solar system has liquid surface water in large quantities.
  • 2. Atmosphere: Earth's atmosphere contains the right proportion of oxygen (21%) for respiration and CO₂ for photosynthesis, maintained by living organisms themselves.
  • 3. Habitable Temperature Range: Earth's distance from the Sun (habitable zone) and the greenhouse effect of its atmosphere maintain temperatures between −50°C and +55°C, suitable for life.
  • 4. Ozone Layer: The stratospheric ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation, protecting living organisms from genetic damage.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Presence of liquid water1 Mark
Suitable atmosphere (O₂, CO₂ balance)1 Mark
Habitable temperature / Ozone layer protection1 Mark
Q2
What is the greenhouse effect? How does it become harmful when intensified by human activities?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~75 words)

Greenhouse Effect (Natural): Certain gases in the atmosphere — CO₂, water vapour, methane — trap some of the Sun's heat (infrared radiation) that would otherwise escape into space, keeping Earth's surface warm enough for life (average ~15°C). This is the natural greenhouse effect and is essential for life.

Enhanced (Harmful) Greenhouse Effect: Burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial activities release excess CO₂, methane, and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. These trap more heat than normal, causing global warming — rising sea levels, melting polar ice, extreme weather events, and disruption of ecosystems worldwide.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Natural greenhouse effect — trapping heat, essential for life1 Mark
Human activities increase greenhouse gases (fossil fuels, deforestation)1 Mark
Consequences: global warming, rising sea levels, climate disruption1 Mark
Q3
List five major threats to Earth's environment and suggest one action a student can take to address each threat.
5 Marks (80–120 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer (Word Count: ~105 words)
  • 1. Air Pollution (from vehicle emissions and factories) → Use public transport or cycle instead of private vehicles; advocate for clean energy.
  • 2. Water Pollution (from chemical waste and plastic dumping) → Never throw waste into water bodies; participate in river/lake clean-up drives.
  • 3. Deforestation (clearing forests for agriculture/construction) → Plant trees at school or home; choose recycled paper products.
  • 4. Plastic Pollution (single-use plastics) → Carry reusable bags and bottles; avoid single-use plastic cutlery and straws.
  • 5. Global Warming / Climate Change (excess CO₂ emissions) → Reduce electricity usage; switch off appliances when not in use; raise awareness in the community.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Air Pollution — threat + student action1 Mark
Water Pollution — threat + student action1 Mark
Deforestation — threat + student action1 Mark
Plastic Pollution — threat + student action1 Mark
Climate Change — threat + student action1 Mark
Q4
Explain the vital role of the ozone layer in the stratosphere. What chemicals caused the ozone hole, and how was it mitigated globally?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Role of Ozone Layer: Located in the stratosphere, the ozone layer (O₃) absorbs harmful high-energy Ultraviolet-B (UV-B) rays from the Sun, preventing skin cancer, cataracts, and immune damage in humans and protecting marine plankton.

Depleting Chemicals: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used in refrigerators, air conditioners, and aerosol sprays release chlorine radicals that catalytically destroy ozone molecules.

Mitigation: The landmark international Montreal Protocol (1987) successfully phased out CFC production and replaced them with eco-friendly alternatives.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Absorption of solar UV radiation1 Mark
Role of CFCs in ozone destruction1 Mark
Montreal Protocol international phaseout1 Mark
Q5
What is acid rain? Explain the chemical reactions causing it and state two damaging effects on monuments and aquatic ecosystems.
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Acid Rain: Precipitation with pH below 5.6 caused by airborne industrial emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ).

Reactions: SO₂ and NO₂ react with atmospheric water vapor and oxygen to form dilute sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) and nitric acid (HNO₃):
SO₂ + H₂O + [O] ➔ H₂SO₄
2NO₂ + H₂O + [O] ➔ 2HNO₃.

Damaging Effects: (1) Corrodes marble monuments like Taj Mahal ("marble cancer": CaCO₃ + H₂SO₄ ➔ CaSO₄ + H₂O + CO₂), (2) Acidifies lakes and rivers, killing fish and aquatic organisms.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition and acid formation reactions1.5 Marks
Marble corrosion and aquatic ecosystem damage1.5 Marks
Q6
Explain the 5 R principles of waste management for sustainable environmental conservation.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

The 5 R Principles:

  • 1. Refuse: Say no to single-use plastics and unnecessary packaging.
  • 2. Reduce: Minimize consumption of resources and generation of waste.
  • 3. Reuse: Use items repeatedly (e.g., cloth bags, glass jars) instead of discarding.
  • 4. Repurpose: Give old items a new functional role (e.g., using tires as garden planters).
  • 5. Recycle: Process segregated waste materials (paper, metals, glass) to manufacture new items.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Listing 5 Rs1 Mark
Brief practical explanation of each R1 Mark
Q7
How does enhanced global warming lead to rising sea levels and extreme global weather events?
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Global warming traps excess heat in the climate system. This leads to:

  • 1. Thermal Expansion: Ocean water expands in volume as it absorbs atmospheric heat.
  • 2. Glacial Melting: Accelerated melting of polar ice sheets (Greenland, Antarctica) adds massive water volumes to oceans, raising sea levels and flooding coastal cities.
  • 3. Extreme Weather: Warmer oceans fuel more frequent and intense cyclones, severe heatwaves, and erratic flash floods.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Thermal expansion of ocean water1 Mark
Glacial melt and intense weather disasters1 Mark
Q8
Suggest five practical, eco-friendly habits that students can adopt in their daily lives to conserve energy and natural resources.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Eco-Friendly Student Practices:

  • 1. Switch off lights, fans, and electronics when leaving a room.
  • 2. Walk or use bicycles for short commutes instead of motor vehicles.
  • 3. Turn off water taps while brushing teeth and fix leaking faucets promptly.
  • 4. Use both sides of notebook paper and recycle old textbooks.
  • 5. Plant trees on school campuses and maintain a kitchen compost bin for organic waste.
CBSE Marking Scheme
Energy conservation habits1 Mark
Resource & water conservation habits1 Mark
Q9
What is the greenhouse effect? Name the two primary greenhouse gases responsible for global warming.
2 Marks (30–50 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Greenhouse Effect: The natural warming process where atmospheric gases trap infrared thermal radiation emitted by Earth's surface, keeping the planet warm enough for life.

Primary Gases: Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) and Methane (CH₄). Excessive emissions from fossil fuel combustion trap surplus heat, driving catastrophic global warming.

CBSE Marking Scheme
Definition of thermal trapping greenhouse effect1 Mark
Carbon dioxide and methane correctly identified1 Mark
Q10
Explain how the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer impacts living organisms. What caused the ozone hole over Antarctica?
3 Marks (50–80 Words)
✅ CBSE Standard Answer

Ozone Layer Depletion:

  • Impacts: Increased solar ultraviolet-B (UV-B) radiation reaching Earth causes skin cancer, cataract blindness in humans, immune suppression, and destroys microscopic phytoplankton supporting marine food webs.
  • Cause: Release of synthetic Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) from aerosol sprays and old refrigerants. In the stratosphere, UV rays break CFCs to release reactive chlorine atoms that catalytically destroy ozone molecules.
CBSE Marking Scheme
UV-B impacts on human health (cancer/cataracts)1 Mark
Impact on phytoplankton and marine ecosystems1 Mark
Role of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and chlorine catalysis1 Mark
🎯 Competency Based Questions (CBQ) — Chapter 13CBSE Pattern
📝 Case Study Based
Q1. The Arctic ice caps have been melting at an accelerating rate over the past 50 years. Scientists have recorded a 40% reduction in Arctic sea ice since 1979. Polar bears, which depend on sea ice to hunt seals, have seen their population decline significantly. Coastal villages in low-lying Pacific islands are being submerged under rising sea water.

(a) What is the primary cause of Arctic ice melting? (b) How does this affect polar bear populations? (c) Suggest two global actions to address this crisis.
(a) The primary cause is global warming driven by increased greenhouse gas (CO₂, methane) emissions from burning fossil fuels, causing rising global temperatures that melt polar ice.
(b) Polar bears depend on sea ice to reach their prey (seals). As ice melts, their hunting platform disappears, leading to food shortage, malnutrition, declining reproduction, and ultimately population decline — threatening their extinction.
(c) (i) Rapid transition to renewable energy (solar, wind) to reduce CO₂ emissions. (ii) International agreements (like Paris Agreement) binding countries to strict greenhouse gas reduction targets.
🧠 HOTS
Q2. If the ozone layer were completely destroyed, how would life on Earth be affected? Explain the chain of consequences.
Answer: Without the ozone layer, harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun would reach Earth's surface unchecked. This would cause: (1) Massive increase in skin cancer, cataracts, and immune system damage in humans and animals; (2) Destruction of phytoplankton (marine plant-like organisms) that form the base of ocean food chains, collapsing marine ecosystems; (3) Reduced crop yields due to UV damage to plant DNA and chlorophyll; (4) Disruption of the water cycle; and ultimately (5) A catastrophic collapse of most complex life forms on Earth — making our planet uninhabitable for most species.